All nations within the Anglosphere (US, UK, CA, AU & NZ) have JD imposed towards citizens. I know that the US & Canada both inherited that from Britain, which explains why they have it. However, should it be entirely only the judge making the conviction (some countries operate on a lay-judge system meaning juries aren’t used, such as Finland or Japan for example) rather than leaving that decision up to jurors?

  • HobbitFoot @thelemmy.club
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    2
    ·
    3 days ago

    The requirement that it goes through jurors who are your peers is the point. The requirement came from where a judge appointed by the King might not be fully trusted to act in the public’s interests, but the King’s interest. The ability to judge someone guilty devolved to a jury because it was a lot easier to do this than any other form of check on judicial power.